RAS (Pre) Exams 2007: HISTORY: Solved Paper

Rajasthan Public Service Commission [RAS/RTS] (Pre.) Examination, 2007 Solved Paper

1. The Sikh Kingdom of Punjab was annexed by the English East India Company in—
(A) 1836 (B) 1839
(C) 1849 (D) 1852

2. The Kol Uprising of 1831 started in—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Bengal
(C) Rajputana
(D) Chota Nagpur

3. Who led the Revolt of the Bareilly troops in 1857 ?
(A) Kunwar Singh
(B) Bakht Khan
(C) Azimullah
(D) Maulvi Ahmadullah

4. Who among the following leaders of the Revolt of 1857 declared himself to be the Governor of Bahadur Shah ?
(A) Nana Sahib
(B) Tantia Tope
(C) Kunwar Singh
(D) Bakht Khan

5. The first Indian Factories’ Act was passed in—
(A) 1881 (B) 1885
(C) 1891 (D) 1894

6. Which of the following was not a consequence of the British Land Revenue Policy in India ?
(A) Increasing impoverishment of the peasants
(B) Growing peasant indebted-ness
(C) The spread of landlordism
(D) The ruin of artisan indus-tries

7. The Archaeological Survey of India was set up during the Viceroyalty of—
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Dufferin
(D) Lord Curzon

8. Who was known as ‘The Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) G.K. Gokhale
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

9. The most important Pre-Con-gress Nationalist Organisation was—
(A) The Indian Association of Calcutta
(B) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
(C) Bombay Presidency Asso-ciation
(D) The Madras Mahajan Sabha

10. Who among the following was a leader of Prarthana Samaj ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(B) Vasudeo Balwant Phadke
(C) R.G. Bhandarkar
(D) G.K. Gokhale

11. All India Women’s Conference was founded in—
(A) 1922 (B) 1927
(C) 1929 (D) 1932

12. Who among the following oppo-sed the Age of Consent Bill of 1891 ?
(A) Swami Dayanand
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Surendranath Sen

13. The worst famine in India under the British rule occurred in—
(A) 1860–61 (B) 1876–78
(C) 1896–97 (D) 1899–1900

14. The first textile mill was started in Bombay in the year—
(A) 1853 (B) 1855
(C) 1866 (D) 1879

15. Abhinava Bharat organised in 1904 was—
(A) a secret society of revolu-tionary activists
(B) a newspaper advocating revolutionary activities
(C) a cultural organisation
(D) a trade union movement

16. A newspaper Al Hilal was brought out in 1912 by—
(A) Dr. M.A. Ansari
(B) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Maulana Muhammad Ali

17. The cancellation of the partition of Bengal was announced in—
(A) 1909 (B) 1911
(C) 1913 (D) 1916

18. Who criticised Indians for having lost touch with the rest of the World ?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Sayyed Ahmad Khan
(C) Vivekananda
(D) Swami Dayanand

19. All India Harijan Sangh was founded by—
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jotiba Phule
(D) B.M. Malabari

20. Who among the following was not a leader of militant nationa-lism ?
(A) Rajnarain Bose
(B) V.S. Chiplunkar
(C) Arbindo Ghosh
(D) Sasipada Bannerjee

21. Who among the following was the leader of Bihar Kisan Sabha ?
(A) Sahajanand Saraswati
(B) Baba Ramchandra
(C) Vijay Singh Pathik
(D) Shraddhanand

22. Who became the Vice-President of the Viceroy’s Council in the Interim Government of 1946-47 ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) M.A. Jinnah

23. Who among the following woman social reformers was called ‘Pandita’ ?
(A) Gangabai
(B) Ramabai
(C) Sister Subbalaksmi
(D) Annie Besant

24. Who was the leader of No Tax Campaign of the peasants orga-nised in 1928 ?
(A) S.A. Dange
(B) Baba Ramchandra
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose

25. The Second Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in—
(A) 1928 (B) 1930
(C) 1932 (D) 1934

26. An All India Strike by Postal and Telegraph Workers started in—
(A) November, 1945
(B) February, 1946
(C) July, 1946
(D) August, 1946

27. Samhita is—
(A) Collection of hymns
(B) Text on grammar
(C) Text on Ayurveda
(D) Forest treatises

28. Which of the following state-ments is not true about Rigvedic Aryans ?
(A) They lived in villages.
(B) They did not know gamb-ling.
(C) They practised polygamy.
(D) Family was the unit of social life.

29. Early Vedic society was organi-sed in—
(A) Janas (B) Jati
(C) Rajanya (D) Sabha

30. Who was the author of Astadh-yayi ?
(A) Patanjali
(B) Panini
(C) Magha
(D) Visakhadatta

31. Which of the following metal was not used by the people of the Indus Civilization ?
(A) Iron (B) Bronze
(C) Gold (D) Silver

32. Which of the following Harap-pan sites is located in Gujarat ?
(A) Banawali
(B) Sanghol
(C) Mudiala Kalan
(D) Surkotada

33. The hallmark of Vedic religion and culture was—
(A) Dhyana
(B) Brahmacharya
(C) Puja
(D) Yajna

34. Under whose patronage was the Sangam literature composed ?
(A) Cholas (B) Cheras
(C) Pandyas (D) Chalukyas

35. What is the language of the Sangam literature ?
(A) Tamil (B) Pali
(C) Prakrit (D) Sanskrit

36. Which of the following ideas is not associated with Buddhism ?
(A) Sila (B) Prajna
(C) Pitru (D) Dhyana

37. The highest goal in Buddhism is—
(A) Nirvana
(B) Madhyama Marga
(C) Vinaya
(D) Atmavad

38. The Third Buddhist Council was convened at—
(A) Takshasila
(B) Sarnath
(C) Bodhgaya
(D) Pataliputra

39. Who among the following scho-lars wrote ‘History of Dharam Sastra’ ?
(A) D.P. Chattopadhyay
(B) P.V. Kane
(C) A.S. Altekar
(D) D.C. Sarkar

40. Who among the following argued that the Aryans came from Central Asia ?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Brandenstein
(C) William Jones
(D) V.A. Smith

41. According to tradition, how many Sangam were held ?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Five

42. Which of the following terms denotes a market centre ?
(A) Prasada (B) Nigama
(C) Grama (D) Nadi

43. Which of the following denotes a land revenue term ?
(A) Vivita (B) Bhaga
(C) Sulka (D) Kara

44. Which of the following officers according to Arthasastra was entrusted with the collection of revenue ?
(A) Sitadhyaksa
(B) Sansthadhyaksa
(C) Samahartta
(D) Sannidhata

45. Megasthenes divided Indian society into—
(A) Four groups
(B) Seven groups
(C) Eight groups
(D) Twelve groups

46. The Mauryan King Bindusara faced the rebellion of the people of—
(A) Kosala (B) Nalanda
(C) Kalinga (D) Takshasila

47. Which sect was initially called Nirgrantha ?
(A) Buddhist (B) Jaina
(C) Ajivika (D) Pashupata

48. Which of the following is regar-ded as the early Jaina Text ?
(A) Sutra Kritang
(B) Tripatika
(C) Mahavastu-Avdana
(D) Avdana Kalpalata

49. Which of the following is a Harappan port ?
(A) Alexandria
(B) Lothal
(C) Mahasthangarh
(D) Nagapattanam

50. The commonest term for peasan-try in early medieval North India is—
(A) Kutumbin
(B) Bhogin
(C) Baddhahalika
(D) Swami

51. By Mauryan times the main sea-port of the Ganges basin was—
(A) Sopara
(B) Bhragukachchha
(C) Patala
(D) Tamralipti

52. Which of the following is not an Antyaja ?
(A) Chandala (B) Rajaka
(C) Nata (D) Yavana

53. Buddhism was introduced into Tibet from—
(A) The Pala Empire
(B) Harsha Vardhana’s State
(C) The Kushana State
(D) The Mauryan State

54. Which of the following state-ments is not true of Ashoka’s Dhamma ?
(A) There was a stress on non-violence
(B) Capital punishment was discontinued
(C) Donation to Brahmans was stressed
(D) There was a concern for master-servant relationship

55. Which of the following commo-dities was a major item of export trade in the Kusana period ?
(A) Cotton textiles
(B) Horse
(C) Gold
(D) Paper

56. Who among the following is described as a fabulously rich merchant in Buddhist Jatakas ?
(A) Vanik
(B) Sarthavaha
(C) Setthi
(D) Apanika

57. Alberuni’s account of India is—
(A) Kitab-ul-Hind
(B) Chachnama
(C) Futuh-us-Salatin
(D) Tarikh-i-Yamini

58. Wali under the Sultans of Delhi was—
(A) Provincial Governor
(B) Head of Revenue Depart-ment
(C) Minister with full powers
(D) Head of the State news-agency

59. Amir Khusro describes the mili-tary campaigns of Jalal-ud-din Khalji in his work—
(A) Nuh Sipihar
(B) Mifta-ul-Futuh
(C) Qiran-us Sadain
(D) Khazain-ul-Futuh

60. The most powerful Kings of Northern India in the 9th and 10th Centuries were—
(A) The Palas
(B) The Chahmanas
(C) The Rashtrakutas
(D) The Gurjara Pratiharas

61. Who declared that there were no slaves in India ?
(A) Kautilya (B) Megasthenes
(C) Patanjali (D) Fahien

62. The view that the Rajputs were descendents of the Vedic Aryans is expressed by—
(A) James Tod
(B) Dashrath Sharma
(C) V.A. Smith
(D) C.V. Vaidya

63. Which Sultan replaced the system of measurement of land by crop sharing in the Khalisa areas ?
(A) Balban
(B) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(C) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq
(D) Muhammad Tughlaq

64. Who among the following Vijay-anagara rulers bore the title of Gajabentakara ?
(A) Krishna Deva Raya
(B) Deva Raya II
(C) Deva Raya I
(D) Rama Raya

65. Which Vijayanagara ruler sent an embassy to China ?
(A) Harihara I
(B) Krishna Deva Raya
(C) Bukka I
(D) Saluva Narasimha

66. The Sultan Ghari was built as the mausoleum of—
(A) Qutab-ud-din Aibak
(B) Rukh-ud-din Firoj
(C) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(D) Kaikubad

67. The first Madrasa at Delhi namely “Madrasae Muizz” was established by—
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(D) Balban

68. Officer in-charge of royal household under the Sultans of Delhi was designated—
(A) Amir-i-hajib
(B) Wakil-i-dar
(C) Barid-i-mumalik
(D) Mustaufi-i-mumalik

69. The Chishti Saint who founded a branch of Chishti Silsilah in Gulbarga was—
(A) Shaikh Nasir-ud-din Chirag-i-Delhi
(B) Gesu Daraz
(C) Shaikh Hamid-ud-din Nagori
(D) Jalal-ud-din Tabrizi

70. Who among the following was not a Nirguni Bhakti Saint ?
(A) Shankardev (B) Raidas
(C) Dadu (D) Dhanna

71. Bhramar Geet were composed by—
(A) Mirabai (B) Nabhadas
(C) Surdas (D) Haridas

72. Select the correct chronology of dynasties that ruled Vijayana-gara ?
(A) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva, Aravidu
(B) Tuluva, Sangama, Saluva, Aravidu
(C) Aravidu, Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva
(D) Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, Aravidu

73. The largest administrative divi-sion in Vijayanagara was—
(A) Kottam (B) Rajyam
(C) Kurram (D) Nadu

74. Pushti Marg was founded by—
(A) Chaitanya
(B) Vallabhacharya
(C) Ramananda
(D) Nimbarka

75. Which of the following rulers of Bikaner was deposed by Jahan-gir ?
(A) Raja Rai Singh
(B) Raja Sur Singh
(C) Raja Dalpat Singh
(D) Raja Karan Singh

76. Who is the author of Safinat-ul-Aulia ?
(A) Shaikh Ahmad Sarhindi
(B) Mohsin Fani
(C) Dara Shukoh
(D) Jahandar Shah

77. Who made the Madad-i-maash grants completely hereditary ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Aurangzeb
(D) Bahadur Shah

78. The Ibadatkhana was closed in the year—
(A) 1579 (B) 1580
(C) 1582 (D) 1583

79. Who among the following Mughal Emperors made serious attempt to annex Trans-Oxiana ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shahjahan

80. Cultivation of tobacco was intro-duced in India during the reign of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb

81. In 1585 Akbar shifted his capital to—
(A) Kabul
(B) Lahore
(C) Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Multan

82. Nasaq during the Mughal Period was—
(A) A system of land revenue assessment
(B) A unit of measurement of land
(C) A Zamindari territory
(D) Revenue free land grant

83. Which of the following mosques is entirely made of marble ?
(A) Jama Masjid at Sikri
(B) Moti Masjid in the Agra Fort
(C) Qila-i-Kuhna Masjid in the Purana Qila of Delhi
(D) Jama Masjid of Delhi

84. Who among the following is the first comprehensive historian of the Marathas ?
(A) M.G. Ranade
(B) G.S. Sardesai
(C) James Cuningham Grant Duff
(D) C.A. Kincaid

85. Who among the following rulers patronized musician Lal Khan Gun Samudra ?
(A) Hussain Shah Sharqi
(B) Islam Shah Sur
(C) Ibrahim Adil Shah II
(D) Shahjahan

86. Dastan-i-Amir-i-Hamza was illu-strated during the reign of—
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shahjahan

87. The English East India Company obtained the lease of Madras in—
(A) 1611 (B) 1623
(C) 1639 (D) 1646

88. Who among the following was imprisoned by the Mughal Emp-eror Jahangir ?
(A) Gosain Jadrup
(B) Miyan Mir
(C) Guru Ramdas
(D) Shaikh Ahmad Sarhindi

89. In 1739 the Portuguese lost their possessions of Salsette and Bas-sein to—
(A) The Dutch
(B) The English
(C) The Mughals
(D) The Marathas

90. Lohgarh Fort was built by—
(A) Guru Hargovind
(B) Guru Teg Bahadur
(C) Guru Govind Singh
(D) Banda Bahadur

91. In 1585-86 the only Rajput who held the mansab of 5000 was—
(A) Raja Bhagwant Das
(B) Raja Raisingh of Bikaner
(C) Raja Man Singh
(D) Rai Surjan Hada

92. Who introduced the Mughal land revenue system in the Deccan ?
(A) Mahabat Khan
(B) Mirza Raja Jaisingh
(C) Diler Khan
(D) Murshid Kuli Khan

93. Which one of the following acco-rding to Bernier was the owner of land in India ?
(A) The Zamindar
(B) The King
(C) The Khud Kashta
(D) The Village Community

94. Haidar Ali established his autho-rity over the State of Mysore in—
(A) 1755 (B) 1761
(C) 1764 (D) 1766

95. In 1751 the Nawab of Bengal ceded Orissa to—
(A) The English East India Company
(B) The Nawab of Avadh
(C) The Marathas
(D) The Afghans

96. Which Peshwa started a long campaign against the sidis of Janjira ?
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Baji Rao
(D) Madhav Rao

97. Who was the founder of the Widow Remarriage Association in the 19th century ?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Vishnu Shastri Pandit
(C) Ramabai
(D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh

98. Shahu was granted the Chauth and Sardeshmukhi of the Deccan during the reign of—
(A) Bahadur Shah
(B) Jahandar Shah
(C) Farrukh Siyar
(D) Muhammad Shah

99. Farrukh Siyar was deposed and killed by—
(A) Zulfiqar Khan
(B) Jahandar Shah
(C) The Sayyed Brothers
(D) Saadat Khan

100. The founder of the autonomous kingdom of Avadh was—
(A) Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk
(B) Safdar Jang
(C) Murshid Kuli Khan
(D) Hussain Kuli Khan

Answers with Explanations :1. (C) 2. (D)
3. (All the four options of the question are not correct.)
Khan Bahadur Khan, the successor of the former ruler (Nawab) of Rohilkhand, led the Revolt of the Bareilly troops in 1857.
4. (All the four options of the question are not correct.)
Khan Bahadur Khan of Bareilly, declared himself to be the Governor (Nazim) of Bahadur Shah.
Nana Sahib declared himself as Peshwa, Kunwar Singh was a Zamindar of Bihar, Tantia Tope was the army-chief of Nana Sahib and Bakht Khan was the army-chief of Bahadur Shah.
5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (A)
10. (C)
11. (B) The All India Women’s Con-ference (AIWC), one of the oldest voluntary organization in the country was founded in 1927 by Margaret Cousins, an Irish Lady, who had made India her home. AIWC original concern was women’s education but grad-ually it took up various social and economic issues concerning women, such as Purdah, Child Marriage, Traf-ficking, Women’s Property Right etc.
Today, AIWC has over 1,00,000 members in 500 branches all over country. It is recognized as a premier organization working for Women’s Development and Empowerment.
12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
16. (C) The Al-Hilal was a news-paper established by Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The newspaper also espoused the cause of the Indian independence movement and exhorted Indian Muslims to join the movement. The newspaper was shut down under the Press Act of 1914.
17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (A)
22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B)
27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (B) Panini was an ancient Indian grammarian from Gandhara. He is known for his Sanskrit gram-mar, particularly for his formula-tion of the 3,959 rules of Sanskrit morphology in the grammar known as Ashtadhyayi, the foundational text of the gram-matical branch of the vedanga, the auxiliary scholarly discipline of vedic religion. The Ashtadh-yayi is the earliest known gram-mar of Sanskrit, and the earliest known work on descriptive ling-uistics, generative linguistics, and together with the work of his immediate predecessors stands at the beginning of the history of linguistics itself.
31. (A)
32. (D) Surkotada is an archaeolo-gical site located in India. It is famous for horse remains dated to ca. 2008 BCE. The site at Surkotada is located 160 km north east of Bhuj, in the District of Kutch, Gujarat.
33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (A)
38. (D) The third Buddhist Council was convenced in about 250 BCE at Asokarama in Patilputra, under the patronage of Emperor Asoka. The reason for convening the third Buddhist Council is reported to have been to red the sangha of corruption and bogus monks who held heretical views. It was presided over by the Elder Moggaliutta Tissa and one thou-sand monks participated in the Council.
39. (B) History of Dharmasastra, with subtitle Ancient and Medie-val Religious and Civil Law in India, is a monumental five-volume work consisting of around 6,500 pages, and was written by Dr. Pandurang Vaman Kane, an indologist. The first volume of the work was publi-shed in 1930 and the last one in 1962. The work is considered as Dr. Kane’s Magnum opus in English.
40. (B) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (C)
45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (B)
50. (A) 51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (B)
55. (A) 56. (C) 57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (B)
60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (B)
65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (B)
70. (A) 71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (B) 74. (B)
75. (A) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B)
82. (A) Nasaq–A subordinate met-hod of revenue assessment which could be used under some major method of assessment. In this method, the revenue was asses-sed on the basis of the previous figures of assessment.
83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (B) 87. (C)
88. (D) 89. (D) 90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (D)
93. (B)
94. (B) Haider Ali, born in 1721 in an obscure family, started his career as a petty officer in the Mysore Army. Though uneducated, he possessed a keen intellect and was a man of great energy, daring and determination. Haider Ali soon found his opportunity in the wars which in valved Mysore for more than twenty years. He established a Modern arsenal in Dindigal in 1755 with the help of French experts. In 1761 he overthrew Nanjaraj and established his authority over the Mysore state.
95. (C)
96. (B) Baji Rao I was a bold and brilliant commander and an ambitious and clever statesman. He has been described as the greatest exponent of Guerrila tactics after Shivaji hed by Baji Rao, the Marathas waged nume-rous campaigns against the Mughal Empire. In 1733, Baji Rao started a long campaign against the sidis of Janjira and in the end expelled them from the main-land.
97. (B)
98. (C)
99. (C) Farrukh Siyar owed his victory to the Sayyed brothers. Abdullah Khan and Hussain Ali Khan Barahow who were there-fore given the offices of Wazir and Mir Bakshi respectively. The two brothers soon acquired domi-nant control over the affairs of the state. Farrukh Siyar lacked the capacity of rule. He was cowardly, cruel, undependable and faithless. In 1719, Farrukh Siyar was deposed and killed by Sayyed brothers.
100. (A) The Subah of Avadh, exten-ding from Kannauj district in the west to the river Karmanasa in the east, was a large and pros-perous region. It became virtually independent in 1722 when a Persian Shia adventurer named Saadat Khan was appointed its governor by Muhammad Shah.

RAS Pre Exam Paper 2008 of Geography

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008


(Held on 7-1-2009)
Geography : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following statements about the shape of the Earth is correct ?

(A) It is oblate spheroid

(B) It bulges slightly at the poles

(C) It is a little flattened at the Equator

(D) It is exactly spherical in shape without any bulge at any place

2. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of landforms developed under fluvial cycle of erosion ?

(A) Gorge, flood plain, piedmont plain, delta

(B) Gorge, piedmont plain, flood plain, delta

(C) Gorge, piedmont plain, delta, flood plain

(D) Piedmont plain, gorge, flood plain, delta

3. Spring equinox falls on—

(A) March 21

(B) June 21

(C) September 23

(D) December 22

4. Relative humidity refers to—

(A) Absolute amount of water vapour in the atmosphere

(B) The amount of hygroscopic nuclei in the atmosphere

(C) Saturated vapour pressure

(D) Rate of actual amount of water vapour in the air to the amount it could hold at that temperature

5. Solar energy which reaches the earth surface is called—

(A) Radiated energy

(B) Radiant

(C) Sunlight

(D) Conduction

6. A broad channel where the waters of a river and a sea mingle is called—

(A) a delta

(B) an estuary

(C) a harbour

(D) a strait

7. Assertion (A) : In orographic nature of rainfall, the windward slope of a mountain range gets more rainfall than the lea ward slope.

Reason (R) : The warm and humid air that descends down the slope get warmed up and dry.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

8. During which period did the domestication of plants and animals take place ?

(A) Paleolithic period

(B) Mesolithic period

(C) Neolithic period

(D) Dark age

9. What is the main occupation of Eskimos ?

(A) Summer cultivation

(B) Winter woodwork

(C) Fishing and Hunting

(D) Handicrafts

10. The process of gradual spread over space of people or ideas from the centre of origin is known as—

(A) Distribution

(B) Diffusion

(C) Innovation

(D) Decentralization

11. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(A) Masai — Matagonia

(B) Kirghiz — Kazakhstan

(C) Melanesians — Malaysia

(D) Pygmies — Tanzania

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Tribe)

(a) Jarwa

(b) Todas

(c) Angami

(d) Saura

List-II (Occupation)

1. Shifting cultivation

2. Terraced cultivation

3. Pastoral

4. Food gathering

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 4 3 1 2

(C) 4 3 2 1

(D) 3 4 2 1

13. Which one of the following agricultural pattern is not practiced in Western Europe ?

(A) Dairy farming

(B) Mixed farming

(C) Market gardening

(D) Intensive subsistence farming

14. Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. Lignite and low grade bituminous coal were formed during the Quaternary period.

2. Dolomite is used as refractory material and flux in iron and steel industry.

3. Chhota Nagpur Plateau is the most extensive, rich and diversified mineral belt.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 3

15. Assertion (A) : All biotic resources are renewable.

Reason (R) : Biotic resources can reproduce and regenerate their population as long as environmental conditions remain favourable.

Of these statements—

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.

16. Which of the folllowing pairs are correctly matched ?

Industrial Region Major Industrial Centres

1. Ukraine Krivoy Rog

2. Kuzbas Novosibirsk

3. Central Asia Karaganda

4. Volga Moscow



Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3

17. The extensive coffee plantation in Brazil is called—

(A) Fazendas

(B) Trasil

(C) Corrals

(D) Estancias

18. Myanmar is industrially backward because of—

(A) Easy livelihood from agriculture

(B) Uneven land surface

(C) Limited local market

(D) Lack of iron ore and coal

19. If the map drawn to a scale of 1 cm to 30 km is to be enlarged three times, then representative fraction of the enlarged map will be—

(A) 1 : 1,000,000

(B) 1 : 3,000,000

(C) 1 : 6,000,000

(D) 1 : 9,000,000

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Instruments)

(a) Planimeter

(b) Pantograph

(c) Parallex bar

(d) Clinometer

List-II (Purpose)

1. Measures angles and slopes on ground

2. Calculation of areas on maps

3. Enlargement and reduction of maps

4. Measures the elevation from the photographs

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 2 3 1

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 1 3 4 2

21. The contours merge and run as a single line for a short distance in the case of a—

(A) Cliff

(B) Knobe

(C) Gorge

(D) Re-entrant

22. What are Cadastral maps used for ?

(A) To show the boundaries of fields and buildings

(B) To show urban areas

(C) To demarcate wasteland

(D) To demarcate land use pattern

23. Ergograph relates to—

(A) Relative humidity and rainfall

(B) Temperature and rainfall

(C) Climate and growing season of crops

(D) Rainfall and winds

24. A line on a map joining points in the oceans that have equal salinity is called—

(A) Isobath

(B) Isocline

(C) Isohaline

(D) Isogonic

25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Mountains)

(a) Andes

(b) Appalacian

(c) Vesuvius

(d) Catskill

List-II (Type)

1. Old folded

2. New folded

3. Residual

4. Volcanic

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 4 3 2

(C) 3 2 4 1

(D) 4 3 2 1

26. Conventional storms in the Atlantics are known as—

(A) Hurricanes

(B) Typhoons

(C) Cyclones

(D) Tornadoes

27. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Podzol soils are poor in bases.

Reason (R) : They develop in tropical areas.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

28. The largest number and widest variety of plants and animals would be found in—

(A) Tropical grasslands

(B) Tropical forests

(C) Temperate forests

(D) Temperate grasslands

29. A natural region has the similarity of—

(A) climate and natural vegetation

(B) climate and occupation

(C) soil and drainage

(D) economic base and natural vegetation

30. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below—

Assertion (A) : The population of the world has experienced an unprecedented growth during the 20th Century.

Reason (R) : Rapid advances in medical technology reduced death rate of population very significantly during the 20th

Century.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

31. Which one of the following is the most significant ecological determinant of population distribution in the world ?

(A) Physical features

(B) Mortality rate

(C) Land fertility

(D) Climate

32. Population growth in most of the developing countries of Asia is determined by—

(A) Birth rate and migration

(B) Migration and death rate

(C) Birth rate, death rate and migration

(D) Birth rate and death rate

33. The people of which country are known as Magyars ?

(A) Hungary

(B) Slovakia

(C) Austria

(D) Romania

34. Non-commercial pastoral nomadism is a way of life in the—

(A) Velds of South Africa

(B) Steppes of Mangolia

(C) Prairies of Canada

(D) Australian downs

35. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : When British Rule ended in India, many Anglo-Indians migrated to Australia.

Reason (R) : Some migrations are caused by religious attraction.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

36. Hunting and fishing is the main occupation of the people living in—

(A) Equatorial regions

(B) Polar regions

(C) Temperate grasslands

(D) Semi-desertic regions

37. There are rich fishing grounds off the coast of Peru and Chile for the reason of—

(A) Shallow continent shelf

(B) Convergence of cold and warm currents

(C) Upwelling of water from deeper layers

(D) Flow of warm ocean currents

38. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The boundary marking the termination of tree growth is known as timber line.

Reason (R) : Its location is determined by the amount of moisture, exposure, evaporation and depth of snow.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

39. The breed of sheep which produces the best quality wool is—

(A) Kutchi

(B) Merino

(C) Chokla

(D) Magra

40. Agriculture involving both crops and livestock is called—

(A) Intensive farming

(B) Extensive farming

(C) Mixed farming

(D) Double farming

41. Laterization process forms—

(A) A layer rich in minerals

(B) A layer rich in iron contents

(C) A layer rich in living organisms

(D) A layer rich in calcium

42. Which one of the following countries leads in export of condensed milk ?

(A) India

(B) Belgium

(C) Italy

(D) Netherlands

43. Which one of the following is not true about Singapore, the smallest country in Southeast Asia ?

(A) Has no natural resources

(B) Has the highest per capita income in whole of Southeast Asia

(C) Has non-strategic location

(D) Has well-educated population

44. Which one of the following countries in Southwest Asia has the largest well-irrigated farmland ?

(A) Lebanon

(B) Syria

(C) Iraq

(D) Jordan

45. Which one of the following regions is called as ‘rust belt’ of Japan ?

(A) Northern Honshu

(B) Southern Honshu

(C) Shikoku Islands

(D) Kyushu Islands

46. Which one of the following countries in East Asia adopted ‘Great Leap Forward’ policy for its rapid socio-economic transformation ?

(A) Japan

(B) Korea

(C) Taiwan

(D) China

47. Which one of the following statements is not true about U.S.A. ?

(A) Is the largest market economy in the world

(B) Has a federal system of governance

(C) Is a highly urbanised and metropolized country

(D) Rural areas in Southern America are highly rich

48. Two Russian terms which entered the English language during Mikhail Gorbachev’s restructuring of the Soviet Union in the late 1980s were—

(A) Bolshevik and Menskevik

(B) Perestroika and Zaibatsu

(C) Novgoroad and Glasnost

(D) Perestroika and Glasnost

49. Russia’s main trading partner(s) is/are—

(A) Other CIS countries

(B) China

(C) Western Europe

(D) Japan

50. The Mount Everest falls along the natural boundary between—

(A) India and Nepal

(B) India and China

(C) Nepal and China

(D) Pakistan and China

51. The correct monsoon sequence (Season/Climatic conditions) is—

(A) Summer/Wet; Winter/Dry

(B) Summer/Dry; Winter/Wet

(C) Summer/Cold; Winter/Warm

(D) Summer/Mild; Winter/Wet

52. Which one of the following Indian States has the longest coastline ?

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Karnataka

(D) Andhra Pradesh

53. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with—

1. Excessive rainfall

2. Deforestation

3. Excessive Cultivation

4. Overgrazing

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 are correct

(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(D) 2 and 4 are correct

54. Which one of the following types of forest grows in the shaded portion of the given rough outline map of India ?

(A) Mixed deciduous

(B) Tropical Savannah

(C) Semi-arid Scrub lands

(D) Mangrove forests

55. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—

Assertion (A) : Offshore fishing in Malabar coast is more developed than that in the Coromandel coast.

Reason (R) : Malabar coast has better facilities to export sea fish to African countries.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

56. The group of States having the forest cover of more than 75 per cent to the total geographical area is—

(A) Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland

(B) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland

(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland

(D) Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland

57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Cattle Breed)

(a) Gir

(b) Alambadi

(c) Dangi

(d) Deoni

List-II (State)

1. Tamil Nadu

2. Maharashtra

3. Gujarat

4. Andhra Pradesh

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 1 4 2

(D) 3 1 2 4

58. Which one of the following States has the highest livestock density in the country ?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

59. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—

Assertion (A) : Indian agriculture is no longer the gamble of the monsoons.

Reason (R) : There is recent expansion of dry land farming in India.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

60. Which one of the following is associated with Indian Agriculture ?

(A) I.C.A.R.

(B) I.C.C.R.

(C) I.C.M.R.

(D) I.C.W.A.

61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Name of Crop)

(a) Rice

(b) Jowar

(c) Jute

(d) Coffee

List-II (State Growing)

1. Maharashtra

2. Orissa

3. Karnataka

4. West Bengal

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 2 1 4 3

62. Which of the following dams has generation of power more than irrigation as its main aim ?

(A) Gandhi Sagar

(B) Hirakud

(C) Periyar

(D) Tunghabhadra

63. Consider the following—

1. Hematite

2. Magnetite

3. Limonite

4. Siderite

Which of the above are iron ore ?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

64. Which Government agency is responsible for mapping and exploration of minerals in India ?

(A) Survey of India

(B) Geological Survey of India

(C) Minerals Development Corporation

(D) Indian School of Mines

65. Which one of the following is not a source of geothermal energy ?

(A) Hot Geyser

(B) Hot Spring

(C) Coal

(D) Volcano

66. Malvika Steel Plant, the first fully integrated steel plant in North, India, was set up in—

(A) Bihar

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Punjab

67. Which of the following places is not associated with fertilizers ?

(A) Panipat

(B) Alwaye

(C) Namrup

(D) Ranchi

68. The New Industrial Policy was introduced in India in the year—

(A) 1987

(B) 1991

(C) 1993

(D) 1998

69. During which Census decade, sex-ratio in India registered the sharpest decline ?

(A) 1911-12

(B) 1921-31

(C) 1951-61

(D) 1961-71

70. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of population of the four metropolis as per 2001 Census ?

(A) Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai

(B) Kolkata, Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai

(C) Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi

(D) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai

71. What is the most favoured location of settlements in the mountainous regions ?

(A) Valley bottoms

(B) Ridge tops

(C) Valley side slopes

(D) Hill top

72. Largest buyers of goods exported from India is—

(A) Asia and Oceania region

(B) North America

(C) Latin America

(D) Western European region

73. The following countries are the major trading partners of India. Using codes given below their names, put these countries in sequential order of their share in total trade of India—

1. U.S.A.

2. China

3. Hong Kong

4. United Arab Emirates (UAE)

Codes :

(A) 1, 4, 3 and 2

(B) 2, 1, 4 and 3

(C) 4, 3, 1 and 2

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

74. Which one of the following public sector agencies in India is not associated with promotion of international trade ?

(A) State Trading Corporation (STC)

(B) Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC)

(C) Projects and Equipment Corporation of India (PEC)

(D) Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL)

75. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—

Assertion (A) : The Rajasthan desert is covered with shifting sand dunes.

Reason (R) : For want of rain and surface flowing of water, the work of wind is felt everywhere.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Summit)

(a) Dodabetta

(b) Nanda Devi

(c) Amarkantak

(d) Guru Sikhar

List-II (Mountain Range)

1. Nilgiri Hills

2. Himalaya Mountains

3. Aravali Range

4. Maikal Range

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 3 2 1 4

(C) 1 2 4 3

(D) 4 1 2 3

77. The climate around Bikaner can be described as—

(A) Mediterranean type

(B) Semi-arid steppe

(C) Hot desert

(D) Tropical monsoon

78. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the soils found in Western Rajasthan ?

(A) Contain sand interrupted by low rocky projections

(B) Contain a lot of soluble salts in the top layer

(C) Are the least leached soils and lack in humus also

(D) Are poor in phosphate but rich in nitrogen

79. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the vegetation found in Rajasthan ?

(A) Height of trees and density of plant cover is low

(B) Xerophytic plants are common

(C) The nature of vegetation does not change with variations of habitat

(D) Available forests are a good source of fuel wood and minor forest products

80. Which one of the following statements is not true about Western Arid region of Rajasthan ?

(A) This is the largest area size region in the State

(B) Bajra is the most prominent crop of the region

(C) Rural settlements are highly disperse and small in size

(D) Rainfall goes on increasing as one moves from east to west direction in the region

81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Livestock Breed)

(a) Rathi

(b) Kankrej

(c) Mallani

(d) Gir

List-II (District)

1. Nagaur

2. Jaisalmer

3. Sirohi

4. Ajmer

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 2 3 1 4

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—

List-I (Mining Area)

(a) Lunkaransaur

(b) Zawar Mines

(c) Deogarh

(d) Champa-gudha

List-II (Mineral Wealth)

1. Berryllium

2. Gypsum

3. Lead and Zinc

4. Mica

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 2 1 3

83. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(A) According to 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest population size districts in Rajasthan State are Jaipur and Jaisalmer, respectively

(B) At 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest area size districts in Rajasthan State were Jaisalmer and Dholpur, respectively

(C) Five new districts were created in Rajasthan between 1991 and 2001 Census decades

(D) According to 2001 Census, the highest and the lowest literacy districts in Rajasthan State were Jaipur and Dungarpur, respectively

84. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of decadal growth of population in the four districts of Rajasthan State during 1991-2001 ?

(A) Jaipur, Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer

(B) Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jaipur, Bikaner

(C) Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur

(D) Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur, Jaisalmer

85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—

List-I (Lake)

(a) Nakki Talab

(b) Sambhar

(c) Pichola

(d) Gadsisar

List-II (District)

1. Jaisalmer

2. Udaipur

3. Sirohi

4. Jaipur

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

86. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—

Assertion (A) : Rajasthan is mainly a region of interior drainage.

Reason (R) : It is mainly a structural basin surrounded by hill ranges.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

87. Which one of the following statements is not correct about River Luni ?

(A) The Luni is a river of Western Rajasthan

(B) It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range in Ajmer District

(C) It is also known as Lavanavari river

(D) The Luni and its tributaries drain the eastern slopes of the Aravali range

88. The Rajasthan Canal (Indira Gandhi Canal) draws its water from the river—

(A) Sutlej

(B) Yamuna

(C) Chambal

(D) Sutlej and Beas

89. Chambal is the joint project of—

(A) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar

(C) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

(D) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

90. Which one of the following problems is not encountered in Indira Gandhi Canal command area ?

(A) Increase in soil salinity

(B) Progressive waterlogging

(C) Aeolian silting of canal

(D) Decline in water supply

91. What are Didwana and Pachpadra famous for ?

(A) Copper

(B) Lead and Zinc

(C) Salt

(D) Gypsum

92. In List-I industrial sectors has been listed, while in List-II are listed the location of industrial complexes. Match the two lists using the correct code, given ahead—

List-I (Industrial Sector)

(a) Gems and Jewellery

(b) Hosiery

(c) Ceramics

(d) Textiles

List-II (Location of Industrial Complex)

1. Pali

2. Khara (Bikaner)

3. Bhiwadi

4. Jaipur

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

93. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of irrigated area in percentage under the four crops grown in Rajasthan State ?

(A) Wheat, Gram, Oilseeds, Cotton

(B) Wheat, Cotton, Gram, Oilseeds

(C) Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram, Cotton

(D) Cotton, Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram

94. Rajasthan, which is one of the five top ranking States in wind power potentials, has a number of very good wind power sites in the State. Match the wind power sites with districts of their location, using the correct code.

List-I (Wind power site)

(a) Devgarh

(b) Harhnath

(c) Khodal

(d) Mohangarh

List-II (District of Location)

1. Sikar

2. Barmer

3. Jaisalmer

4. Chittorgarh

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 4 1 2 3

95. National Highway No. 15 linking Punjab with Gujarat State passes through the territory of a number of districts in Rajasthan State. The number of such districts in the State is—

(A) Five

(B) Six

(C) Four

(D) Seven

96. Thar link express train running between Jodhpur and Munabao railway stations covers nearly a distance of—

(A) 150 km

(B) more than 200 km

(C) less than 300 km

(D) more than 300 km

97. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—

Assertion (A) : The area falling east of the Aravalli in Rajasthan State has higher road density than that of those falling west of the Aravalli.

Reason (R) : Relief plays an important effect in regional distribution of roads in the State of Rajasthan.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

98. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the regional distribution of rural settlements in Rajasthan State ?

(A) Rural settlements in the Rajasthan plain are small, compact and sparsely distributed due to limited water supply and

cultivable land

(B) In excessive arid areas having sand dunes, hamleted settlements are noticed near the water-bodies

(C) In eastern parts of Rajasthan large compact villages are a common sight

(D) Indira Gandhi Canal has, however, failed to encourage compact settlements similar to Punjab in northwestern parts of Rajasthan

99. The total number of urban settlements in Rajasthan State, according to 2001 Census has been—

(A) more than 300

(B) between 150 and 200

(C) more than 250

(D) between 200 and 250

100. Which one of the following is not the objective of forestry in Rajasthan State during the XI Five Year Plan ?

(A) To achieve 33•0 per cent tree cover in the State by 2016

(B) To check desertification and restore the ecological status of the Aravallis

(C) To conserve gene-pool and improve bio-diversity of flora and fauna

(D) To elicit people’s participation for institutionalization of Joint Forest Management (JFM)



Answers :

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)

11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)

21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)

31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C)

41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (C)

51. (A) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (A)

61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A)

71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)

81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (D)

91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (C)

SEVEN WONDERS OF THE WORLD

Seven Wonders of Ancient World
1. Hanging Garden of Babylon Colosseum of Rome


2. Temple of Diana al Elephant (Rome) Great wall of China


3. Statue of Jupiter at Olympia Porcelain Tower of Nanking (China)


4. Mausoleum of Mausolus (Ruler of Halicarnassus) Stone henge of England


5. Pyramids of Egypt Mosque at St. Sophia (Constantinople)


6. Light House at Alexandria Catacombs of Alexandria


7. Colossus of Rhodes Leaning Tower of Pisa Taj Mahal (India)

Hanging Garden of Babylon: The Hanging Gardens of Babylon (also known as the Hanging Gardens of Semiramis) (near present-day Al Hillah in Iraq, formerly Babylon) are considered one of the original Seven Wonders of the World. They were built by Nebuchadnezzar II around 600 BC. He is reported to have constructed the gardens to please his wife, Amytis of Media, who longed for the trees and fragrant plants of her homeland.

The gardens were destroyed by several earthquakes after the 2nd century BC. The Hanging Gardens probably did not really “hang” in the sense of being suspended from cables or ropes. The name comes from an inexact translation of the Greek word kremastos or the Latin word pensilis, which mean not just “hanging”, but “overhanging” as in the case of a terrace or balcony.

Statue of Jupiter at Olympia: In ancient Greece, however, it was staged in honour the king of the gods, Zeus (called Jupiter by the Romans). A special temple, the Olympieium, was built at Olympia. It was the home of a huge statue of Zeus. Ancient writers commented that the temple was too small for the statue, or the statue was too large for the temple. Either way, poor old Zeus looked a bit cramped. The base of the statue was approximately 6.5 metres by 10 metres. It was probably over a metre high.The statue was 13 metres high — that’s about the height of a three-storey house in modern times. The statue was not made of stone. It was made of gold and ivory. Wow! Imagine how magnificent it must have looked. It would have cost a lot, too. The temple and statue were built around 460 BC. The statue was destroyed by the Romans in about 40 AD.

Mausoleum of Mausolus (Ruler of Halicarnassus): The Tomb of Mausolus, Mausoleum of Mausolus or Mausoleum at Halicarnassus was a tomb built between 353 and 350 BC at Halicarnassus (present Bodrum, Turkey) for Mausolus, a satrap in the Persian Empire, and Artemisia II of Caria, his wife and sister. The structure was designed by the Greek architects Satyrus and Pythius. It stood approximately 45 metres (135 ft) in height, and each of the four sides was adorned with sculptural reliefs created by each one of four Greek sculptors — Leochares, Bryaxis, Scopas of Paros and Timotheus. The finished structure was considered to be such an aesthetic triumph that Antipater of Sidon identified it as one of his Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. In 377 B.C., the city of Halicarnassus was the capitol of a small kingdom along the Mediterranean coast of Asia Minor. It was in that year the ruler of this land, Hecatomnus of Mylasa, died and left control of the kingdom to his son, Mausolus. Hecatomnus, a local satrap to the Persians, had been ambitious and had taken control of several of the neighbouring cities and districts. Mausolus in his time, extended the territory even further so that it finally included most of southwestern Asia Minor.

Pyramids of Egypt : The Egyptian pyramids are pyramid shaped structures located in Egypt. There are over 100 Egyptian pyramids, most of which were built during the Old and Middle Kingdom periods. The first Egyptian pyramid was the Pyramid of Djozer which was built during the third dynasty under King Djozer. The pyramid was designed by Imhotep as a tomb for the King. The best known egyptian pyramids are the Giza pyramids which are recognized among the largest structures ever built and are the only remaining monuments of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. During Egypt’s Old Kingdom (time line), the pharaohs established a stable central government in the fertile Nile Valley. Perhaps the greatest testaments to their power were the pyramids and other tombs built to shelter them in the afterlife.

Light House at Alexandria : The lighthouse of Alexandria was a tower built in the 3rd century BC (between 285 and 247 BC) on the island of Pharos in Alexandria, Egypt to serve as that port’s landmark, and later, its lighthouse. The lighthouse’s designer was Sostrates of Knidos. The Lighthouse of Alexandria is one of the greatest architectural feats of antiquity. It was at least as tall as a 40 story modern building and stood for over 16 centuries. Proud of his work, Sostrates, desired to have his name carved into the foundation. Ptolemy II, the son who ruled Egypt after his father, refused this request wanting his own name to be the only one on the building.

Colossus of Rhodes: The Colossus of Rhodes was a statue of the Greek god Helios, erected on the Greek island of Rhodes by Chares of Lindos between 292 and 280 BC. It is considered one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. Before its destruction, the Colossus of Rhodes stood over 30 meters (107 ft) high, making it one of the tallest statues of the ancient world. It was roughly the same size as the Statue of Liberty in New York, although it stood on a lower platform. It was one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World.

Colosseum of Rome: The Colosseum or Coliseum, originally the Flavian Amphitheatre is an elliptical amphitheatre in the centre of the city of Rome, Italy, the largest ever built in the Roman Empire. It is one of the greatest works of Roman architecture and Roman engineering. The Colosseum was designed to hold 50,000 spectators, and it had approximately eighty entrances so crowds could arrive and leave easily and quickly. The plan is a vast ellipse, measuring externally 188 m x 156 m (615 ft x 510 ft), with the base of the building covering about 6 acres. Vaults span between eighty radial walls to support tiers of seating and for passageways and stairs. The facade of three tiers of arches and an attic story is about 48.5 m (158 ft) tall — roughly equivalent to a 12-15 story building.

Great Wall of China: The Great Wall of China is a series of stone and earthen fortifications in China, built, rebuilt, and maintained between the 5th century BC and the 16th century to protect the northern borders of the Chinese Empire during the rule of successive dynasties. Several walls, referred to as the Great Wall of China, were built since the 5th century BC. The most famous is the wall built between 220 BC and 200 BC by the first Emperor of China, Qin Shi Huang; little of it remains; it was much farther north than the current wall, which was built during the Ming Dynasty. The Great Wall is the world’s longest human-made structure, stretching over approximately 6,400 km (4,000 miles) from Shanhaiguan in the east to Lop Nur in the west, along an arc that roughly delineates the southern edge of Inner Mongolia, but stretches to over 6,700 km (4,160 miles) in total. It is also the largest human-made structure ever built in terms of surface area and mass. At its peak the Ming Wall was guarded by more than one million men. It has been estimated that somewhere in the range of 2 to 3 million Chinese died as part of the centuries-long project of building the wall.

Taj Mahal of India :  “the epitome of love”, “a monument of immeasurable beauty”. The beauty of this magnificent monument is such that it is beyond the scope of words. The thoughts that come into the mind while watching the Taj Mahal of Agra is not just its phenomenal beauty, but the immense love which was the reason behind its construction. Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan got this monument constructed in the memory of his beloved wife Mumtaz Mahal, with whom he fell in love at the first sight. The very first sight of the Taj Mahal, the epitome of love and romance leaves one mesmerized. Taj Mahal stands on the bank of River Yamuna, which otherwise serves as a wide moat defending the Great Red Fort of Agra, the center of the Mughal emperors until they moved their capital to Delhi in 1637. It was built by the fifth Mughal emperor, Shah Jahan in 1631 in memory of his second wife, Mumtaz Mahal, a Muslim Persian princess. She died while accompanying her husband in Burhanpur in a campaign to crush a rebellion after giving birth to their 14th child.

Other Seven Wonders of the World:

1.The Sphinx, near Gizeh (Ghiza) in Egypt

2.The Catacombs at Rome

3.The Circus Maximus at Rome

4.The Taj Mahal at Agra (India)

5.Angkor vat temple in combodia

6.The Alhambra at Granada in S.Spain

7.Shew Dragon Pagoda or the Golden Pagoda at Yangon in Myanmar

New Seven Wonder of the World:

(as declared on July 7, 2007 by New Seven Wonders foundation of Switzerland,

At a grand ceremony organised in ‘Stadia da Lutz’ Benefica stadium in Lisban (Portugal)

1.The Taj Mahal (Agra, India)

2.The Great Wall of China (China)

3.The Pink Ruins of Petra (Jordan)

4.The Statue of Christ the Redeemer in Ris de Janerio (Brazil)

5.Incan Ruins of Machu Pichu (Peru)

6.The ancient Mayan City of Chichen ltza (Mexico)

7.The Colosseum of Rome (Italy)

RAS (Pre) Exams 2007: Political Science: Solved Paper

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2007


Political Science : Solved Paper

(Held on 23-12-2007)

1. When a Governor reserves a bill passed by the State Legislature ?

(A) He may be impeached

(B) He sends it to the President

(C) He may help the bill pending indefinitely

(D) He may give assent to the bill later

2. Match the following features of Indian Constitution and their sources—

List-I

(a) Bill of Right and Judicial Review.

(b) Parliamentary System of Democracy.

(c) Directive Principles.

(d) Residuary Powers with Centre.

List-II

1. England

2. Ireland

3. U.S.A.

4. Canada

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 3 1 2 4

3. A uniform civil code has been recommended in the Directive Principles to ensure—

(A) Economic equality

(B) National security

(C) National integration

(D) Support for weaker sections of society

4. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—

(A) Delhi

(B) Madras

(C) Calcutta

(D) Bombay

5. Which of the following Newspaper is not associated with Gandhiji ?

(A) The Statesman

(B) Harijan

(C) Young India

(D) Indian Opinion

6. The Bureaucratic model set-up in India by the British Government are based on the theory given by—

(A) Weber

(B) Macaulay

(C) Michels

(D) Macpherson

7. Which Article of Indian Constitution guarantees constitutional protection to our civil servants ?

(A) 311

(B) 312

(C) 313

(D) 315

8. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?

(A) 52nd

(B) 62nd

(C) 72nd

(D) 73rd

9. In which year, the National Commission for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe was created ?

(A) 1989

(B) 1990

(C) 1991

(D) 1996

10. Who was the author of ‘Arthasastra’ ?

(A) Kautilya

(B) Adam Smith

(C) Patanjali

(D) Malthus

11. Who burnt Hobbs’ book ‘Leviathan’ ?

(A) Clarenden

(B) Palmastene

(C) Duguit

(D) Crawe

12. In India the power of Judicial review is enjoyed by the—

(A) High Court only

(B) Supreme Court only

(C) Supreme Court and High Court only

(D) Parliament

13. What are the essential elements of the State ?

(A) Population, Territory, Constitution, Power

(B) Population, Territory, Government, Sovereignty

(C) Population, Territory, Political Party, Sovereignty

(D) Population, Power, Authority, Sovereignty

14. Which of the following Theories of Origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?

(A) Divine Origin of State

(B) Force Theory

(C) Evolutionary Theory

(D) Social Contract Theory

15. Marxism believes that the State is—

(A) social welfare organization

(B) a necessary evil

(C) an instrument of exploitation

(D) an essentially good

16. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—

(A) State has a religion of its own

(B) State has nothing to do with religion

(C) State has irreligious

(D) State tolerates religion without professing any particular religion

17. Who presides over the Joint Session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?

(A) President of India

(B) Speaker of Lok-Sabha

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Leader of Ruling Party

18. The minimum age for becoming President of India is—

(A) 25 years

(B) 21 years

(C) 35 years

(D) 18 years

19. Who was the Chairman of the “Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly” ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(C) J. L. Nehru

(D) B. N. Rao

20. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?

(A) 42nd Amendment

(B) 43rd Amendment

(C) 44th Amendment

(D) 45th Amendment

21. Which of the following technique is not adopted by the Pressure Groups ?

(A) Gherao

(B) Lobbying

(C) Propaganda

(D) Directly Contesting Election

22. The United Nations is financed by—

(A) The contribution from the Member-States

(B) Switzerland

(C) Russia

(D) America

23. Article 21 deals with which Fundamental Right ?

(A) Right to Property

(B) Right to Freedom

(C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

(D) Right to Freedom of Religion

24. Which one of the following welfare ideals is not found in the list of Directive Principles ?

(A) Compulsory Primary Education

(B) Equal Pay for equal work

(C) Promoting Health Services

(D) Compulsory Employment

25. The mediator in Aceh Peace Accord in 2005 was—

(A) Finland

(B) Philippines

(C) Laos

(D) Singapore

26. 13th SAARC Summit was organized in—

(A) Bangladesh

(B) India

(C) Pakistan

(D) Nepal

27. The Corruption Treaty of U.N.O. is effected from—

(A) October 2005

(B) November 2005

(C) December 2005

(D) January 2005

28. Which Amendment was passed for Private Reservation Bill on December 2005 ?

(A) 102

(B) 103

(C) 104

(D) 105

29. The 6th Schedule of Constitution is not applied on the State—

(A) Assam

(B) Meghalaya

(C) Tripura

(D) Manipur

30. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice are—

(A) 15

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 14

31. Presently how many members are in U.N.O. ?

(A) 189

(B) 191

(C) 185

(D) 193

32. Presently how many members are in ‘NATO’ ?

(A) 26

(B) 15

(C) 18

(D) 12

33. Which Five Year Plan’s main aim was ‘Removal of Poverty’ ?

(A) 4th Five Year Plan

(B) 5th Five Year Plan

(C) 6th Five Year Plan

(D) 7th Five Year Plan

34. ‘Politics is struggle for power’ is said by—

(A) Marganthau

(B) Kwisy Right

(C) Sprout

(D) Thomson

35. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—

(A) Planning Commission

(B) Public Service Committee

(C) Finance Minister

(D) Finance Commission

36. Which one of the following Commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?

(A) Sarkaria Commission

(B) Shah Commission

(C) Bachhavat Commission

(D) Jain Commission

37. The first State where the Panchayati Raj System was implemented ?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Uttar Pradesh

38. Who was U.N. Secretary-General in 2006 ?

(A) Trygve Lie

(B) Kofi Annan

(C) V. Thant

(D) Javier Perez

39. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?

(A) For the harsh attitude of British

(B) Because of pact between Congress and British

(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura

(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress

40. Khilafat Movement subsided because of—

(A) The concession given to the Muslim by the British

(B) The accession of Kamal Pasha to the throne of Turkey

(C) The understanding reached between the Congress and the Muslim League

(D) None of the above

41. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my Birth Right’ was given by—

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(C) Lokmanya Tilak

(D) Bipin Chandra Pal

42. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—

(A) A.V. Dicey

(B) Laski

(C) Austin

(D) Maciver

43. Which one of the following is not a fundamental Right ?

(A) Right of Life

(B) Right to Liberty

(C) Right to Property

(D) Right to Freedom of Expression

44. The name of revolutionary leader, who killed General O’Dyer, responsible for Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy was—

(A) Madan Lal Dhingra

(B) Chandra Shekhar Azad

(C) Bhagat Singh

(D) Udham Singh

45. The centre-point of International Relations is—

(A) Struggle

(B) Power

(C) National Interest

(D) None of the above

46. Indian system is—

(A) Federal

(B) Quasi-federal

(C) Unitary

(D) Federal with unitary bias

47. India began NAM in—

(A) 1961

(B) 1954

(C) 1973

(D) 1978

48. Sino-Indian War occurred in—

(A) 1961

(B) 1962

(C) 1948

(D) 1947

49. The major irritant in Indo-Pak relations is—

(A) Kashmir Issue

(B) Sir Creek Line

(C) Division of River Water

(D) Issue of Disarmament

50. The Indo-US Nuclear Agreement is related to—

(A) Civil Nuclear Cooperation

(B) Military and Civil Nuclear Cooperation

(C) Capping of Indian Nuclear Programme

(D) None of the above

51. ‘Panchayat Raj’ Amendment Act is known as—

(A) 73rd Amendment

(B) 74th Amendment

(C) 75th Amendment

(D) 76th Amendment

52. Who is known as a ‘Prophet of empty liberty’ ?

(A) Bentham

(B) Mill

(C) Laski

(D) Maciver

53. Which is not a key feature of State ?

(A) State is sovereign

(B) The State is an exercise in legislation

(C) The State is an instrument of domination

(D) The State is not a territorial association

54. “The State is both the Child and Parent of Law.” Whose statement is this ?

(A) Maciver

(B) Laski

(C) Coker

(D) Holland

55. Who made the statement “State is prior to individual” ?

(A) Plato

(B) Aristotle

(C) Cicero

(D) Augustine

56. Who among the following is the first modern Thinker ?

(A) Plato

(B) Aristotle

(C) Acquinas

(D) Machiavelli

57. The most powerful advocate of Absolute Sovereignty was—

(A) Hobbes

(B) Rousseau

(C) Bentham

(D) Mill

58. Who said Politics as the “authoritative allocation of values” ?

(A) Easton

(B) Samuel Johnson

(C) Machiavelli

(D) Lord Acton

59. Who said “Politics is both Science and Art” ?

(A) Laswell

(B) Kaplan

(C) Michel Curtis

(D) Tritschke

60. Who said “If liberty and law do not quarrel, liberty may quarrel with itself” ?

(A) Laski

(B) Maciver

(C) Barker

(D) Maxey

61. In the view of Green, the three obstacles to freedom are—

(A) Religion, Ignorance and Poverty

(B) Family, Government and Religion

(C) Ignorance, Drunkenness and Poverty

(D) None of these

62. Who among the following regarded as Medieaval Aristotle ?

(A) St. Augustine

(B) St. Thomas Acquinas

(C) Marsiglio of Paduc

(D) John Salisbury

63. Which among the following is not a natural right according to Locke ?

(A) Life

(B) Liberty

(C) Property

(D) Equality

64. Who said that imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism ?

(A) Lenin

(B) Stalin

(C) Mao

(D) Marx

65. The term Socialism was first used by—

(A) Marx

(B) Robert Owen

(C) Lenin

(D) Mao

66. Who wrote the book “Local and Regional Government” ?

(A) G.D.H. Cole

(B) Carl Friedrich

(C) Maciver

(D) Gandhi

67. Greek Philosopher gave supreme importance to—

(A) Individual

(B) State

(C) Community

(D) King

68. An Estimate Committee is—

(A) Permanent

(B) Temporary

(C) Both

(D) None of these

69. Who is considered as the Founder of Welfare State on the moral basis ?

(A) Kant

(B) Bosanquet

(C) Green

(D) Rousseau

70. Which Political Scientist gave a new dimension to the concept of Justice, Liberalism and Equality ?

(A) John Rawls

(B) Arthur Bentley

(C) Karl Marx

(D) Hans Morgenthau

71. Who wrote Parliament ?

(A) Jennings

(B) Strong

(C) Jenks

(D) Corry

72. Who said that “State is Particular portion of mankind viewed as an organised” ?

(A) Bluntschelli

(B) Hegel

(C) Burgess

(D) Leacock

73. The most clear exposition of the ‘rule of law’ was provided by—

(A) George Washington

(B) Jean Bodin

(C) Ivar Jennings

(D) A. V. Dicey

74. Who said Sovereignty was the fullness of State ?

(A) The Greeks

(B) The English

(C) The Romans

(D) The Indians

75. The chief proponent of the Theory of Natural Right are—

(A) John Locke and Thomas Paine

(B) Lasswell and Kaplan

(C) Hegel and Kant

(D) Durkheim and Weber

76. Who is the author of ‘Two Concept of Liberty’ ?

(A) Mill

(B) Isciah Berlin

(C) Laski

(D) Macpherson

77. “Pain and Pressure and the two sovereign matter”, is said by—

(A) Hobbes

(B) Hegel

(C) Machiavelli

(D) Bentham

78. Who defined democracy as “a Government in which everyone has a share” ?

(A) Bryce

(B) Seeley

(C) Laski

(D) Lincoln

79. Who wrote the book “Social Principles and the Democratic State” ?

(A) Benn and Peters

(B) C.E.M. Joad

(C) Barker

(D) Hocking

80. Who propagated “The greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?

(A) Marxists

(B) Utilitarians

(C) Liberals

(D) Pluralists

81. According to Kautilya, ‘Trivarg’ includes

(A) Arth-Kama-Dharma

(B) Arth-Kama-Moksha

(C) Dharma-Artha-Moksha

(D) Arth-Dharma-Moksha

82. Who stated that pressure group have acquired the name of the ‘Third House’ ?

(A) Laski

(B) Finer

(C) Bryce

(D) Dicey

83. Which Article of the Constitution defines the duties of Chief Minister ?

(A) Article 163

(B) Article 164

(C) Article 166

(D) Article 167

84. Regarding the re-election of the Vice-President our—

(A) Constitution prescribes reelection only once

(B) Constitution places a clear ban

(C) Constitution is absolutely silent

(D) Constitution prescribes reelection for a maximum period of two terms

85. The philosophical basis of negative liberalism is—

(A) Individualism

(B) Capitalism

(C) Communism

(D) None of the above

86. Which one of the following are the devices of democracy which are commonly practised in modern times ?

1. Widening of the Electorate.

2. Frequent Election.

3. Local Self Government.

4. Responsibility of the Government to the majority party.

Select correct answers from the following—

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

87. Who said “A strong middle-class is the backbone of democracy” ?

(A) Aristotle

(B) Garner

(C) Plato

(D) H. G. Wells

88. Indian Administration is influenced by which of the following factors ?

(A) Federalism

(B) Parliamentary Democracy

(C) Planning

(D) All of the above

89. Treaty of Versailles is related to—

(A) Korean Crisis

(B) First World War

(C) Afghanistan Crisis

(D) Second World War

90. Who heads the Meeting of Committee of Secretaries ?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Cabinet Secretary

(C) Home Secretary

(D) Defence Secretary

91. NATO was set up in the year—

(A) 1948

(B) 1949

(C) 1951

(D) 1952

92. At which place Churchill give his speech regarding Cold War ?

(A) London

(B) Fulton

(C) Paris

(D) Berlin

93. Who observed that universal adult franchise is not really universal ?

(A) G. D. H. Cole

(B) G. B. Shaw

(C) G. W. F. Hegel

(D) Gilchrist

94. Input-ouput model is chiefly attributed to—

(A) Peter Merkl

(B) Roburt Dahl

(C) David Easton

(D) David Apter

95. In which part of the Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare State ?

(A) Part III

(B) Part IV

(C) Part IX

(D) Part VI

96. Which of the following included in the State list in the Constitution of India ?

1. Police

2. Law and order

3. Prisons

4. Criminal Procedure Code

Choose correct answers from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

97. Which of the following are not matched properly ?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi–Non-cooperation Movement

(B) Vinoba Bhave–Bhoodan

(C) M. N. Roy–Partyless Democracy

(D) J. L. Nehru–Democratic Socialism

98. National Development Council was established in—

(A) August 1951

(B) August 1947

(C) August 1952

(D) August 1950

99. Which U.S. Resolution proposed the ‘STAR-WARS’ programme ?

(A) Nixon

(B) Kennedy

(C) Reagan

(D) Bush

100. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—

(A) Part I of the Constitution

(B) Part III of the Constitution

(C) Part IV of the Constitution

(D) None of the above

ANSWER KEYS
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C)15. (C)
16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A)26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (C)
29. (D)30. (A)31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C)36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (C)
42. (A)43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D)47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (A)52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (A)
55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (A)59. (C) 60. (D) 61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (D)64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A)67. (C)
68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (A) 72. (C)73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (A) 76. (B) 77. (D)78. (B) 79. (A)80. (B)
81. (A)82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (A)86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (D)89. (B) 90. (B) 91. (B)92. (B) 93. (A)
 94. (C)95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (C) 99. (C) 100. (C)

HEALTH TIPS for Preaparation in Exams

TIPS FOR GOOD HEALTH IN PREPARATION OF IAS/RAS



1. Sleep :

6-8 Hours of sleeping is necessary for good health.

2. Tea or Coffee :

Don’t use excessive quantity of these drinks

3. Water :

Daily 4-5 litere in small packs in multiple times

4. Change your sitting Position:

Time to time at the time of study

5. Exercise :

Light exercise about 10 to 30 minutes daily

6. Overcome from stress :

Use Yoga and meditation to increase your concentration on study

7. Breakfast :

Take balanced diet with vitamins & minerals

PREVIOUS UPSC(MAIN)-2006 : General Studies : Paper-II

PAPER-II :




Q. 1. Write any two of the following (in about 150 words each) :



(a) US policy on Iran's nuclear programme.

(b) Terrorism sources in Pakistan and Afghanistan.

(c) Crippling the king in Nepal



Q. 2. Asnwer the following (in about 20 words each):



(a) Simla Agreement

(b) Indo-Israel Co operation in the field of agriculture.

(c) Pakistan role in Srilanka.

(d) Indo-US military cooperation.

(e) Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty



Q. 3. Write about the following (in about 20 words each) :



(a) Contribution of the NRIs to GCC countries

(b) Future of Indians in Fiji.

(c) Indian's in the House of Lords, UK.

(d) Contribution of Indian's in Silicon valley

(e) Exodus of persons of Indian origin from Uganda.



Q. 4. Anwer any one of the following (in about 250 words each) :



(a) Discuss the importance of World Trade Organisation of Indian Economy in the light of various opportunity and challenges at the global level.

(b) Describe the main sources of industrial finance in India. How could India be benefited from recent developments in international finance ?



Q. 5. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each) :



(a) Discuss the role of public sector during the post-reform period of Indian economy.

(b) Examine the effects of globalisation on poverty removal in India.

(c) What are the implications of gender disparities in India.



Q. 6. Answer the following (in about 20 words each) :



(a) What is Philips curve ?

(b) What is Hundi ?

(c) What is twin deficit ?

(d) What is the main difference between free trade area and common market ?

(e) What is forward currecy market ?

(f) What is Laffer curve ?

(g) What is Eurobonds ?

(h) What is Disguised unemployment ?

(i) What are nifty junior ?

(j) What is Agri-Trade ?

(k) What is CEMA bloc ?

(l) What is rolling settlement ?

(m) What is Difference between Green Box Subsidies and Blue Box subsidies ?



Q. 7. Write about the any two of the following (in about 150 words each) :



(a) G-8 Summit n Russia.

(b) Expanding role of Amnesty International.

(c) Role of European Parliament.



Q. 8. Write about the following (in about 20 words each) :



(a) Trade through Nathu La Pas

(b) Outer space Treaty

(c) Withdrawal of Japanese Troops from Iraq

(d) Maastricht Treat

(e) Cuba and Castro



Q. 9. Write about the following by expanding and exlaning the objectives (in about 20 words each) :



(a) ICJ

(b) INTELSAT

(c) IBRD

(d) WMO

(e) WHO



Q. 10. Write any one of the following (in about 250 words each) :



(a) Explain how Nanoscience and Nantechnology have revolutionized modern technology.



Q. 11. Answer any two of the following (in about 150 words each) :



(a) What do you understand by optical computing? Why is optical computing envisaged to have much better performance than that of eletctronic Computing ?

(b) Write a note on Bio-refinery versus Fossil fuels.

(c) What are normal osmosis and reverse osmosis ? Why has reverse osmosis become popular in India today ?



Q. 12. Anwer all the five, (in about 20 words each) :



(a) What do you understand by a search engine in computer ?

(c) Expand the following

(i) CAD :

(ii) CAM :

(iii) CIM :

(c) Explain what is Thin Film Memory in computers

(d) Write a short note on Artificial Intelligence.

(e) Who are called Hackers in computer world ?



Q. 13. (a) In an a opinion survey regarding a proposed civil measure to be introduced, altogether 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the proposed measure. 156 females were undecided in their opinion.

(i) Put the above information in a neat statistical table. From the table, calculate-

(ii) the percentage of those voting for the proposal among the males.

(iii) the percentage of those voting for the proposal among the males.

(c) Present the following information using a suitable diagram :

State PercentageMale LiteratesFemale (2001 Census)

Kerala 94.20 87.86 90.72

Maharasthra 86.27 67.51 77.27

Tamil Nadu 82.33 64.55 73.47

West Bengal 77.58 60.22 69.22



Q. 14. (a) From the following frequency distribution of 260 housewives of a locality according to their TV-watching habit-

(i) draw the graph of culmulative frequencies of less than type :

Hours per week watching T.V. Number of housewives

5-9 13

10-14 39

15-19 60

20-24 75

25-29 42

30-34 27

35-39 4

Total 260

(ii) the median of the distribution :

(iii) number of housewives spending at most 18 hours per week watching TV.



(b) The following table shows the average percentage of family expenditure, as also percentage increase in price in 2005 compared to 2000, for the major heads of expenditure for the urban middle class families in a State in India.



Calculate the percentage increase in cost of living the this segment of population in 2005 compared to 2000

Head of expenditure % of family expenditure % increase in price in 2005 compared to 2000

Food 25 32

Clothing 18 25

Fuel & Electricity 16 30

House Rent 15 200

Miscellaneous 26 45

Total 100 -



Q. 15. Answer the questions :



(a) A union leader complained : that the owners of this factory have adopted a policy of gradually decreasing the wages of its workers is amply evident from the fact that the average monthly wage of the workers has dropped down to Rs. 2,530 in January, 2005. Comment on the validity o the arugument.

(b) As high as 45% of the under-5 children, brought to the outdoor clinics of 4 major State-run hospitals in Kolkata last year, were found to be victims of malnutrition. Incidence of malnutrition among the under-5 children in the city must, therefore, by alarmingly high. Explain why you support the argument, or disagree with it.

(c) In a community support project, the average grants (in Rs.) received by the male and the female beneficiaries were 5,200 and 5,800 respectively, while the average grant received by the beneficiaries was 5,560. What percentage of beneficiaries were females ?

(d) The amounts of rainfall (in mm) in a town

on 10 consecutive days are as follows :

8.5, 0, 6.8, 3.2, 4.8, 10.5, 76.2, 9.4, 0, 1.2

Use a suitable measure to throw light on the central tendency of the data.